Discussion about this post

User's avatar
scott cunningham's avatar

I think those definitions — did and treatment on the treated — are not correct? Isn’t the Tot is the wald estimator — reduced form divided by first stage. Not compared to baseline. That is at least my understanding — which is why it corresponds to the LATE. But the did explanation isn’t right. It’s a 2x2 comparison between treatment and control on the long difference.

Neural Foundry's avatar

Super clear explanation of why identification in markets is so slippery. The concert analogy is perfect, the kind of thing that makes you realize how often we confuse measuring substitution within a system versus measuring what happens when the whole system shifts. I ran into a version of this when trying to understand local labor market effects, where the control regions were obviously absorbing displaced workers, but the standard approach just treated that as noise. The Minton Mulligan framing of sepaating DiD from ToT from scale effects feels like it should be required reading beore anyone interprets a treatment study.

6 more comments...

No posts

Ready for more?