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scott cunningham's avatar

I think those definitions — did and treatment on the treated — are not correct? Isn’t the Tot is the wald estimator — reduced form divided by first stage. Not compared to baseline. That is at least my understanding — which is why it corresponds to the LATE. But the did explanation isn’t right. It’s a 2x2 comparison between treatment and control on the long difference.

Follynomics's avatar

I didn’t understand this. But I WILL be pretending like I did to forward my Austrian priors.

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