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Tristan's avatar

“to the extent that the broader measure of money declines, this reflects an excess demand for base money — caused either by an increase in demand or reduction in supply. To the extent that the broader measure of money increases, this reflects either a decline in the demand for base money or increase in the supply of base money”

Could you explain this more? What is the connection between the demand to hold inside money and the demand to hold base money? If the quantity of inside money is determined endogenously by the real demand for it and the costs of supplying it, nominal income need not change to eliminate excesses or deficiencies. So why would any increase or decrease in the quantity of inside money not simply be associated with an equilibrium quantity of inside money, given the price level and quantity of outside money? And how would changes in the supply and demand for inside money be connected to the supply and demand for base money in a multiplier fashion? For instance M2 could increase independently of the base if the public shifted out of currency into deposits, as banks respond to deposit demand M2 would increase and…ok wait I think I’m understanding your statement now. Increases in that broad money aggregate reflect a declining demand for base money as the public shifts out of currency. Hmm, I guess you’d need a pretty broad aggregate to make sure you’re not just capturing shifts between different non base exchange media. Everyone says the multiplier is dead and aggregates aren’t useful, but I think I see the value here. Would be interested to read more you’ve written about this.

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